Audioscripts ↓
A Top Secret B Undersea Restaurant C The Ninja Castle D The Ice Room E Food for all F Floor 100 G Lights Off H The Enormous Steak
Task 2Содержание ↑
You will hear Louise Bright telling some students about her work as a clothes designer. For each question (4–10 ), choose the correct letter a, b or c .
Louise’s first job was as a a) bank clerk. b) travel agent. c) secretary. In the first year of her course, Louise a) learnt how to make clothes. b) studied the history of fashion. c) worked in a large clothes shop. At the final fashion show, Louise says she was really pleased that a) her parents saw her work. b) all the college students worked well together. c) owners of fashion businesses were there. Louise says she really likes designing sports clothes because they are a) produced in a variety of styles. b) easy for her to make. c) comfortable for people to wear. Louise began her professional carrier a) after finishing school. b) right after getting a degree. c) while studying for a degree. Louise says that most students from her course now work a) for well-known fashion designers. b) for big stores. c) in advertising. Louise’s aim is to a) start a children’s clothes business. b) get to the top of her profession. c) make a lot of money. Part 2. Reading (10 points)Содержание ↑
Time: 15 minutes
Read Green economy and decide if the following statements 11–20 are true (T ), false (F ) or not stated in the text (NS ). Choose the correct answer.
Green Economy The green economy is an emerging marketplace and a new growing billiondollar sector. It includes things such as organic produce and products, theconstruction of ‘green buildings’ and alternatively-fuelled vehicles. It also includesrenewable energy sources such as wind and electricity, and so represents an economicmodel in contrast to the more traditional model based on fossil fuels (coal, petroleumand natural gas).
The idea of the green economy is based on the awareness of the independenceof human economic activities and ecosystems and the terrible impact that theseactivities can have on climate change and global warming. The green economy seeksto optimize the synergy between three of values: social, environmental and financial.This is most commonly referred to as the ‘triple bottom line’. Furthermore, this typeof economy is environmentally sustainable and is based on the belief that ourbiosphere is a closed system with finite resources and a limited capacity for selfregulation and self-renewal. We depend on the Earth’s natural resources, andtherefore we must create a different economic system that respects the integrity of theEarth’s ecosystems.
According to reports by the ILO (International Labour Organization) and UNDP (United Nations Development Programme), changing patterns of employment and investment resulting from efforts to reduce climate change and its effects are already generating new ‘green jobs’ in many sectors and economies. Millions more could be created in both developed and developing countries. Unfortunately, at the moment too few green jobs are being created where they are most needed, for the 1.3 billion working poor (43% of the global workplace) in the world. The report focuses on ‘green jobs’ in agriculture, industry, services and administration that contribute to preservation or restoring the quality of the environment. It also calls for measures to ensure that these jobs constitute ‘decent work’. In other words, jobs that do not exploit people for example with long hours and low pay.
T F NS 11 Cars that use alternative fuels are part of the green economy. 12 Examples of fossil fuels are coal, petroleum and natural gas. 13 The green economy is only interested in human economic activities. 14 Traditional economy sees natural fossils as endless resources. 15 The green economy recognizes that the Earth’s biosphere has natural resources that will run out. 16 The ILO and UNDP say that efforts to reduce climate change will create green jobs in the future. 17 All the green jobs are in the developing countries. 18 Over 40% of the world’s workplace is poor. 19 Heavy industry may promote green working zones as well. 20 ‘Decent work’ means jobs that respect people’s working conditions.
Part 3. Use of English (45 points)Time: 45 minutes
Task 1. Items 21–35 (15 points)Содержание ↑
For questions 21–35, read the text below and decide which answer A, B, C or D best fits each space. There is an example at the beginning (0).
Music Nobody knows for certain what the (0) _______ of music was. Music is certainly older than poetry and painting but as early man had no way of (21) _______ it, we can only (22) _______ what it sounded like. Watching a child (23) _______ on a drum with his hands or a (24) _______ of wood, it is easy to see that this is the simplest of instruments. It does not (25) ____ much effort to produce a rhythm on it.
Wall paintings show what some of the instruments (26) _______ like. Early civilizations had already discovered the three basic (27) _______ of producing music: blowing into a tube, striking an object, and scraping a string. We know that western music comes from the (28) _______ Greeks. The musical scales we use now are (29) _______ on certain sequences of notes which the Greek used to create a particular (30) _______ .
Until the sixteenth century, most players of instruments were (31) _______ performers, but as music became more (32) _______ , orchestras and musical groups began to (33) _______ . This (34) _______ about the writing of music to be played by several musicians at one time. This can certainly be (35) _______ the birth of modern music.
A B C D 0 origin age spring growth 21 recording playing producing performing 22 think reckon guess realise 23 hitting knocking crashing banging 24 slice point piece shape 25 make call take do 26 looked appeared felt sounded 27 forms manners systems ways 28 ancient old aged antique 29 raised based established supported 30 spirit temper mood humour 31 separate lonely unique single 32 widespread enlarged expanded extended 33 turn appear spring be 34 produced affected caused brought 35 appointed called decided named
Task 2. Items 36–45 (10 points)Содержание ↑
For the questions 36–45 , read the text below. Use the words given in the capitals at the end of each line to form a word that fits in the space in the same line. There is an example at the beginning (0).
Example: 0 punctuality
On Time
For many people, (0) punctuality is a big issue. Parents are often keen to impress upon their children the (36) __________ of being punctual because they see it as an aspect of (37) ________ and consideration for others. It is also a quality that (38) ________ regard as a very positive, and those who are (39) ________ unpunctual may end up being (40) ________ in their careers as a result. It may be, however, that less punctual people have chosen a more (41) ________ lifestyle than those who always arrive on time. They may find it (42) _________ when so much emphasis is placed on timekeeping. Indeed, if others get (43) _________ when they are late for (44) __________, this may not seem (45) _________ to them. PUNCTUAL IMPORTANT POLITE EMPLOY USUAL SUCCESS RELAX
STRESS PATIENCE APPOINT REASON
Task 3. Items 46–55 (10 points)Содержание ↑
For questions 46–55 complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence/s, using the word given. Do not change the word given. You must use between two and five words, including the word given. Please mind both grammar and spelling. Here is an example (0).
Example : 0 It was the most relaxing holiday I ever had.
I have never ___________________holiday. SUCH
I’ve never met such an interesting person before. He is the most ___________________________________ met. EVER
Father made me clean my room. I __________________________________________ my room. MADE
It isn’t necessary for Mum to cook tonight. Mum ________________________________________ tonight. HAVE
The fact that the job was poorly paid was the reason why she turned it down. The fact that the job was poorly paid was __________________ it down. FOR
Sam called Mary. He wanted to invite her to a party. Sam called _________________________________to a party. TO
Peter rented a flat. It was on the second floor. Peter rented _____________________________ the second floor. THAT
‘Will you come to dinner with me, Ann?’ said Paul. Paul _________________________________ dinner with him. INVITED
Gary talks more quietly than Helen. Gary talks _____________________________________ Helen. LESS
John hasn’t played golf for years. The __________________________________ was years ago. TIME
It was very exciting news and I couldn’t wait to tell everyone. It was ________________________________ I couldn’t wait totell everyone.
SUCH
Task 4. Items 56–65 (10 points)Содержание ↑
Quiz Read questions 56–65 and choose the correct answer A, B, C or D .
56. Moscow was first mentioned in chronicles in
A. 1046 B. 1147 C. 1274 D. 1312
57. Moscow was founded by
A. Peter the Great B. Dmitry Donskoy C. Yury Dolgoruky D. Ivan Kalita
58. Moscow’s patron saint is
A. Saint George B. Saint Paul C. Saint Nicolas D. Saint Peter
59. Moscow’s city government is headed by a
A. president B. chairman C. senator D. mayor
60. Moscow is a port of
A. two seas B. three seas C. four seas D. five seas
61. Kuznetsky Most is
A. a bridge B. a museum C. a street D. a shop
62. The Sheremetyev Palace is in
A. Ostankino B. Izmailovo C. Kuzminky D. Kolomenskoye
63. Which is the smallest ring in Moscow?
A. Moscow Automobile Ring Road B. Boulevard Ring C. Garden Ring D. Third Ring
64. The Kremlin Clock (Kremlevskii Kuranty) is on ….. Tower.
A. Borovitskaya B. Senatskaya C. Spasskaya D. Troitskaya
65. Kitay-Gorod is
A. a town B. a district C. a street D. a side street
Part 4. Writing (20 points)Содержание ↑
Time: 45 minutes
You are witnessing a huge process of renovation in Moscow. Write a letter to Moscow authorities with your suggestions on how to improve the life of our citizens in the following areas:
healthcare education culture outdoor sports facilities public transport Write about 180–200 words.
KEYS (ответы) Part 1 «Listening»Содержание ↑
Task 1
Task 2
Part 2 «Reading»Содержание ↑
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 T T F NS T F F T NS T
Part 3 «Use of English»Содержание ↑
Task 1
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 A C D C C A D A B C D A B D B
36 importance 37 politeness 38 employers 39 usually 40 unsuccessful 41 relaxed/relaxing 42 stressful 43 impatient 44 appointments 45 reasonable
Task 3
46 interesting person I have/ ‘ve ever 47 was made to clean 48 does not/ doesn’t have to cook 49 the reason for her turning 50 Mary to invite her 51 a flat that was on 52 invited Ann to come to/ invited Ann to 53 less loudly than 54 last time/ time John played golf 55 such exciting news that
Task 4
56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 B C A D D C A B C B
Подсчёт баллов за все конкурсыСодержание ↑
Listening – максимальное количество баллов 10. Задания проверяются автоматически. Каждый правильный ответ оценивается в 1 балл . За неверный ответ или отсутствие ответа выставляется 0 баллов.
Reading – максимальное количество баллов 10. Задание проверяется автоматически. Каждый правильный ответ оценивается в 1 балл. За неверный ответ или отсутствие ответа выставляется 0 баллов.
Use of English – максимальное количество баллов 45. Task 1, Task 4 проверяются автоматически. Каждый правильный ответ оценивается в 1 балл. За неверный ответ или отсутствие ответа выставляется 0 баллов. Task 2,
Task 3 проверяются по ключам. Каждый правильный ответ оценивается в 1 балл. За неверный ответ или отсутствие ответа выставляется 0 баллов. В Task 3 орфография учитывается. Если дан грамматически правильный ответ, но в ответе допущены орфографические ошибки, ответ оценивается в 0 баллов.
Writing – максимальное количество баллов 20. Задание оценивается по Критериям оценивания.
При подведении итогов баллы за все конкурсы суммируются.
Максимальное количество баллов за все конкурсы – 10 + 10+ 45 +20 = 85.
Критерии оценивания конкурса письменной речи (writing)Содержание ↑
Максимальное количество баллов: 20
Внимание! При оценке 0 по критерию «Решение коммуникативной задачи» выставляется общая оценка 0.
БАЛЛЫ за решение коммуни кативной задачи РЕШЕНИЕ КОММУНИКАТИВНОЙ ЗАДАЧИ Итого: максимум 10 баллов ОФОРМЛЕНИЕ максимум 10 баллов Общая итоговая оценка выводится на основании критериев, приведённых в таблице: композиция, лексика, грамматика, орфография и пунктуация Композиция (максимум 2 балла) Лексика (максимум 3 балла) Грамматика (максимум 3 балла) Орфография и пунктуация (максимум 2 балла) 10 баллов Коммуникативная задача полностью вы полнена – содержание раскрыто полно, точно и интересно. Работа участника со держит:1) вступление;
2) предложение по улучшению медицин ского обслуживания в Москве;
3) предложение об улучшении образова ния в Москве;
4) предложение об улучшении в культур ной сфере города;
5) предложение об улучшении в спортив ной жизни жителей города;
6) предложение об улучшении обществен ного транспорта;
7) заключение. В работе участника
8) нет ошибок с точки зрения композиции;
9) нет логических ошибок и присутствуют разнообразные средства логической связи;
10) Участник демонстрирует оригиналь ный подход в раскрытии темы.
Объём работы либо соответствует задан ному, либо отклоняется от заданного не более чем на 10 % (в сторону увеличения – не больше 220 слов, в сторону уменьше ния – не меньше 162 слов) *.
2 балла Работа не имеет ошибок с точки зрения компози ции: представлены введение и заклю чение.
Соблюдена логика высказывания. Средства логиче ской связи присут ствуют и исполь зуются правильно. Текст правильно разделён на абзацы.
3 балла Участник демон стрирует богатый лексический за пас, необходимый для раскрытия темы, точный вы бор слов и адек ватное владение лексикой.
Работа не имеет ошибок с точки зрения лексическо го оформления.
3 балла Участник демон стрирует грамот ное и уместное употребление грамматических структур в соот ветствии с ком муникативной за дачей. Работа имеет 1 негрубую ошибку с точки зрения грамматического оформления.
9–1 баллов Коммуникативная задача в целом выпол нена – текст соответствует заданным ас пектам задания.За несоблюдение каждого из перечис ленных аспектов 1 – 10 снимается по 1 баллу за содержание.
1 балл В целом текст име ет чёткую компо зицию. Текст раз делён на абзацы. В тексте присут ствуют средства логической связи, которые не всегда используются пра вильно. Допустимы незначительные нарушения в ком позиции и/или ло гики или связности текста.
2 балла Участник демон стрирует богатый лексический за пас, необходимый для раскрытия темы, точный вы бор слов и адек ватное владение лексикой. В работе имеются 1–2 незначитель ные (негрубые) лексические ошибки, не за трудняющие по нимание текста.
2 балла Участник демон стрирует грамот ное и уместное употребление грамматических структур. В работе имеются 2 незначительные (негрубые) грам матические ошиб ки, не затрудня ющие понимание высказывания.
2 балла Участник демон стрирует уверен ное владение навыками орфо графии и пункту ации. Работа не имеет ошибок с точки зрения орфогра фии. В работе могут быть 1–2 пунктуационные ошибки, не за трудняющие по нимание выска зывания.
0 баллов
Коммуникативная задача практически не выполнена. Не выполнены все из перечис ленных аспектов оценивания текста. ИЛИ Объём высказывания менее 162 слов. 0 баллов Текст не имеет чёт кой логической композиции. Отсутствует или неправильно вы полнено абзацное членение текста. Имеются серьёзные нарушения связно сти текста и/или многочисленные ошибки в употреб лении средств ло гической связи.
1 балл В целом лексиче ские средства со ответствуют за данной теме, од нако имеются не точности в выбо ре слов (3–4 ошибки), которые не затрудняют понимания текста и/или использует ся стандартная, однообразная лек сика.
1 балл В тексте присут ствуют несколько (3–4) грамматиче ских ошибок, не затрудняющих общего понима ния текста.
1 балл В тексте присут ствуют орфогра фические (1–3) и/или пунктуаци онные ошибки (3–4), которые затрудняют об щее понимания текста.
0 баллов Участник демон стрирует крайне ограниченный словарный запас и/или в рассказе имеются много численные ошиб ки (более 4) в употреблении лексики, в том числе затрудня ющие понимание текста.
0 баллов В тексте присут ствуют многочис ленные ошибки (более 4) в разных разделах грамма тики, в том числе затрудняющие понимание текста.
0 баллов В тексте присут ствуют много численные орфо графические (бо лее 3) и/или пунктуационные ошибки (более 4), в том числе за трудняющие его понимание.
* При отклонении от заданного объёма более чем на 10 % в сторону увеличения проверке подлежат первые 200 слов. При объёме работы менее 162 слов выставляется 0 баллов.
Audioscripts Task 1Содержание ↑
Listen to three short recordings. In each recording 1–3 , a waiter is giving instructions to some guests. What restaurant, A–H , is the waiter in? You will hear the recording only ONCE .
You now have 15 seconds to look at task 1.
(пауза 15 секунд)
Now we are ready to start.
One. Waitress 1:Hi. How are you? Just before I take you to your table, put on these gloves and snow boots. Children, don’t touch the walls please! OK, follow me. Here’s your table. I’ll bring you some hot soup while you look at the menu.
Two. Waiter:Here’s the bill. I hope you enjoyed your meal, sir. And remember – bring your friends with you next time – but, don’t tell your enemies where we are – it’s a secret!
Three. Waitress 2:Go over to the butcher’s table. Choose a steak. The butcher will weigh it for you. Take your steak to the barbecue and tell the chef how you’d like your meat. Don’t touch the grill or you’ll burn yourself.
Now you have 15 seconds to complete one.
(пауза 15 секунд)
Task 2Содержание ↑
Аудиозапись ↑
You will hear Louise Bright telling some students about her work as a clothes designer . For each question 4–10 , choose the correct letter A, B or C .
You now have 30 seconds to look at the questions.
(пауза 30 секунд)
Now we are ready to start. Listen carefully. You will hear the recording twice
Louise :
I’ve worked as a sportswear designer for a big store for four years now, but I haven’t always worked in fashion. When I left school I worked as a secretary for a couple of years , and then became a bank clerk before getting a job in a travel agency. But I always dreamt about working in fashion, and I used to spend a lot of time staring out of the window and drawing clothes!
So, when I was 25, I went to college – the London School of Fashion, and did a four-year course there. You don’t learn how to actually design and make clothes until the second year – the first year is spent looking back at the fashions of the past . In the third year you work in a big store, looking at clothes made by all the famous fashion names.
I enjoyed the last year of the course most, because each student designs seven sets of clothes for the final fashion show. All the students at the school come to the final show, and you can invite other friends as well. But for me, the best thing was that my Mum and Dad could come and see what I’d done . Of course, people who are really well-known in the fashion trade often come too.
I loved the final show. The things I designed were all sports clothes. The shape of these clothes is really quite simple, so it’s sometimes hard to make them look new and interesting. But I particularly like the materials you use because they feel soft when you’ve got them on .
I was very lucky to get work as a fashion designer as soon as I’d finished college. A few students from my course were offered work by really famous fashion designers, but I was offered permanent work by the store I’d worked for as a student, and I’m now designing a special range of clothes for the store . In fact, most of the other students on my course aren’t designing at all – they’re working in advertising for the fashion industry .
I really love my work, but I intend to have my own business in the end – I’d like to design children’s sports clothes , and sell them on the internet. I don’t expect to be fantastically successful, but if I could earn enough to live on, that would be great.
Now you have 15 seconds to answer the questions, then you will hear the recording again.
(пауза 15 секунд)
Now listen again.
(запись повторяется)
You have 15 seconds to check your answers.
(пауза 15 секунд)
This is the end of Part One.